fourthly: His statement, "but the majority approved him," does not benefit him at all, as it is a form of misleading and covering up his flaw! For if he was with them in approving his condition and using his ḥadīth as evidence, then why did he report his weakening by Abū Ḥātim and al-Nasāʾī?! And what is the purpose of the entire commentary then?! But the truth is that al-Kawtharī is evasive and conciliatory, and he creates a fallback position for himself if one of the scholars refutes him! fifthly: His statement: And they interpreted the ḥadīth... etc. I say: And what is wrong with interpretation if the purpose is to reconcile the texts of the sharīʿah, and is this the first authentic ḥadīth to be interpreted?! So what does al-Kawtharī do with his statement ﷺ: "None of you truly believes until he loves for his brother what he loves for himself"? Agreed upon. Its citation has passed under number (73) and his statement: "By Allāh, he does not believe, by Allāh, he does not believe, by Allāh, he does not believe, the one whose neighbor is not safe from his harm." Narrated by al-Bukhārī. And the truth is that even if the ḥadīth is interpreted, it is an argument against the Ḥanafīs who still insist on opposing the predecessors in their claim that faith does not increase or decrease. For them, faith is a single level; they cannot conceive of incomplete faith, and therefore al-Kawtharī tries to reject this ḥadīth, because after its correct interpretation, it becomes an argument against them, as its meaning is: "and he is a believer with complete faith." Ibn Baṭṭāl said: "The people of the sunnah interpreted faith here as complete, because the sinner becomes in a lesser state of faith than one who does not sin." This was mentioned by al-Ḥāfiẓ (10/28). Similarly, what was transmitted (12/49) from Imām al-Nawawī who said: "The correct view held by the scholars is that its meaning is: he does not commit these sins while having complete